Here’s my question:
From John 10:34
Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, “You are gods” ’?
Where in the law (of Moses supposedly), was it cited that “you are gods”? The only reference I could get is that of Psalm82, which appears to be a judgement of spiritual beings (gods) created by God to govern the tribes of nations. I need answers, thanks! 
Hello @GabrielJr!
Welcome to the community! Thanks for the question! When we think of the law in the Old Testament, we often think of the first five books (the Pentateuch) given to Moses. So why is Jesus quoting from the Psalms?
The Greek word used here for law is “νόμος” transliterated “nomos” and it can mean:
Strong’s definition: law (through the idea of prescriptive usage) generally (regulation) specifically (of Moses [including the volume]; also of the Gospel) or figuratively (a principle): - law
Thayer’s Definition: anything established, anything received by usage, a custom, a law, a command
A. of any law whatsoever a law or rule producing a state approved of God by the observance of which is approved of God
- a precept or injunction
- the rule of action prescribed by reason.
- of the Mosaic law, and referring, acc. to the context. either to the volume of the law or to its contents
B. the Christian religion: the law demanding faith, the moral instruction given by Christ, esp. the precept concerning love
C.the name of the more important part (the Pentateuch), is put for the entire collection
D. the name of the more important part (the Pentateuch), is put for the entire collection of the sacred books of the OT
This means though law in the narrow sense can mean “Pentateuch”, it can also broadly mean scripture that is authoritative. By referring to the Psalms as “scripture that cannot be broken” Jesus establishes the authority of Psalms. So Jesus is not necessarily classifying Psalm 82 as part of the Torah given to Moses but is quoting from what was already considered authoritative.
The NET Bible note for John 10:34 confirms this understanding:
Technically the Psalms are not part of the OT “law” (which usually referred to the five books of Moses), but occasionally the term “law” was applied to the entire OT, as here
Here are a few other examples of usage of the word “nomos” where Psalms or other parts of the Old Testament are referred to as law:
John 12:34 ESV - So the crowd answered him, “We have heard from the Law that the Christ remains forever. How can you say that the Son of Man must be lifted up? Who is this Son of Man ( could be quoting Ps 89:4, 36-37, Ps 110)
John 15:25 ESV - But the word that is written in their Law must be fulfilled: ‘They hated me without a cause (could be quoting from Ps 69:4)
1 Corinthians 14:21 ESV - In the Law it is written, “By people of strange tongues and by the lips of foreigners will I speak to this people, and even then they will not listen to me, says the Lord. (Isaiah 28:11)
There are many more examples where we see such usage of the word, law in the Bible. So, Jesus here seems to be simply appealing to the scriptures his hearers regarded as law, because he says “your law” in order to begin making his defense for the charge of blasphemy that was being raised against him.
I hope that helps! Look forward to other thoughts you or others might have. Thanks!
Wow. I get it up to ½ now. The remaining ½ borders around this question: “what was the context of Psalm 82 ? Wasn’t it about some spiritual beings labeled as ‘gods’ ? If it was, why would their identity be a legitimate reference for man when Jesus mentioned “the law” and “ye are gods” ? I get it that the child of a Goat should be a goat, yet, Isn’t using Psalm 82 already a context mismanagement?
Thank you for your patience and response.
Hi @GabrielJr,
Glad to hear the previous response helped address part of your concern about Psalm 82. You’re now asking a new question about the basis for Jesus quoting Psalm 82:6-7 in John 10:34-36 to defend his claim to be the Son of God. Before entertaining the idea that Jesus may have misapplied Psalm 82’s context, I pray the Lord will guide us to pursue the truth of this verse and help us understand it better. From what I have read on Psalm 82:6-7, Bible commentators offer two interpretations of what “gods” could mean, each of which supports Jesus’ claim.
NET Bible note on Psalm 82:1-2:
…….the Hebrew term אֱלֹהִים (ʾelohim, “gods”) here refers to the pagan gods who supposedly comprise El’s assembly according to Canaanite religion. Those who reject the polemical view of the psalm prefer to see the referent as human judges or rulers (אֱלֹהִים sometimes refers to officials appointed by God, see Exod 21:6; 22:8-9; Ps 45:6) or as angelic beings (אֱלֹהִים sometimes refers to angelic beings, see Gen 3:5; Ps 8:5)
1. The “gods” as human judges view: In John 10: 35, Jesus begins his argument by saying, “If he called them gods to whom the word of God came and the scripture cannot be broken…”. So, to whom did the word of God come? According to Hebrews 2:2, Acts 7:53, and Galatians 3:19 the Law was put in place or delivered through the angels, but it was given to humans because of human transgressions, and those who did not keep it received just retribution. In Psalm 82, the “gods” are rebuked for making unjust legal decisions and favoring the wicked. Because humans, not angels, rule in human courts, proponents of this view understand “gods” here to mean “human rulers.” This idea can be supported by Old Testament verses where human judges (Exodus 22:8), prophets like Moses (Exodus 4:16, 7:1) and rulers like Solomon (Psalm 45:6) are given the title of God. So, in quoting Psalm 82:6-7 in John 10:34-36, Bible commentators suggest Jesus argues from the lesser to the greater to defend his claim as Son of God.
NET Bible note:
…..this is evidently a case of arguing from the lesser to the greater, a common form of rabbinic argument. The reason the OT judges could be called gods is because they were vehicles of the word of God (cf. 10:35). But granting that premise, Jesus deserves much more than they to be called God. He is the Word incarnate, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world to save the world (10:36). In light of the prologue to the Gospel of John, it seems this interpretation would have been most natural for the author**.** If it is permissible to call men “gods” because they were the vehicles of the word of God, how much more permissible is it to use the word “God” of him who is the Word of God?
2. The “gods” as heavenly beings view: The late Old Testament scholar, Dr. Michael Heiser, the author of the book The Unseen Realm: Recovering the supernatural worldview of the Bible, interprets “gods” in Psalm 82 as angels/spiritual beings that are given authority to judge and guide the nations in accordance with the divine council worldview he developed. According to this view, in Psalm 82;1-2, God takes his stand in the midst of the divine assembly to judge the “elohim”/”gods” for abusing their authority and Psalm 82:6-7 is a pronouncement of future judgment upon the fallen angels who will die like men. If “elohim” were already human, then saying that they would “die like men” in v.7 would be meaningless, as human judges are mortal beings. Psalm 82:8 ends with a prayer asking God to judge the earth, for all the nations are his inheritance. According to this view, by quoting Psalm 82:6-7 after claiming that the Father and he are one and appealing to His good works, Jesus is asserting that he is the true, uncorrupted, unique Son of God who will displace the corrupt spiritual beings over the nations to establish God’s kingdom on earth. Another Bible scholar, Dr. Peter Goeman, in his article, “I said, you are gods”—What is Jesus Saying in John 10, writes:
In my opinion, the gods of Psalm 82 most naturally refer to angelic beings. But can we import that context of Psalm 82 into Jesus’ argument in John 10? I think we can. Rather than seemingly backtracking on the claim of John 10:30, “I and the Father are one,” it seems much more likely that Jesus would attempt to prove His divine status through Scripture. As such, it seems to me that Jesus is using Psalm 82 as proof that Scripture recognizes other divine beings (“gods” to borrow Psalm 82 language). By maintaining His claim of equality with the Father in John 10:38, Jesus would be claiming to be a co-regent authority over the divine beings of Psalm 82, since God claims to have absolute authority over these gods in Psalm 82. In other words, this would essentially be doubling down rather than sowing confusion about what Jesus was saying.
I have only briefly described the two views, and I have much to learn as well. I am not sure what prompted you to ask the question, but as you research these two views further, you may have more clarity. No matter which view we take of the “elohim,” the charge of total failure of the so-called gods to administer God’s justice on earth and their ultimate judgment remains the same, but Jesus asserts that he shares in the identity of the heavenly Father, as the Word sent from God and as attested by his righteous deeds, in contrast to the works of the gods in Psalm 82.